IBOLC Entrance Practice Exam

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• Surface to Surface Fires consist of which weapons used to suppress, destroy, or neutralize?
• Which weapon has an effective area range of 800-1,000 meters?
• Which of the following is a minor terrain feature?
• Who handles operations, training, and readiness (S3)?
• Which term describes an enemy infantry unit at the platoon level?
• Which statement correctly differentiates grid north, true north, and magnetic north?
• Flexibility is the ability to adapt to enemy actions.
• Disruption is defined as breaking enemy tempo and formations.
• Which term describes targets known and listed on the Joint Target List or Relayed Target List but not necessarily prioritized for engagement in the current cycle?
• Massing Effects involve concentrating fires at a decisive point.
• What is the M249 effective range for a point-target?
• What is the minimum range of the 60mm mortar?
• What does red map color indicate?
• Which of the following is a factor analyzed under METT-TC?
• What is the M249 rate of fire (rapid)?
• In the context of fire support tasks, what does 'Destroy' mean?
• Unscheduled targets are best defined as which of the following?
• Which of the following is a movement formation?
• In MDMP, a COA is best described as?
• Which item is NOT a component of METT-TC?
• In casualty care, what comes after Massive hemorrhage control in the MARCH sequence?
• Which of the following is true about contour lines?
• Unscheduled targets are best defined as what?
• What is the maximum range of the 81mm mortar?
• Which Offensive Characteristic denotes the speed of operations to overwhelm enemy decision-making?
• Which Offensive Characteristic means attacking the enemy flank(s)?
• Which statement about S-2's role is accurate?
• In land navigation, what is a back azimuth used for?
• Which Offensive Characteristic is used to develop the situation and gain contact with the enemy?
• Compass resection requires aligning the map with known landmarks and which reference?
• Which Offensive Characteristic describes chasing and destroying a withdrawing enemy?
• Disrupt (Obstacle Effect) refers to which action?
• Traveling Overwatch is characterized by which description?
• Map Colors (Blue) indicate which features?
• What is the approximate firing range of a 60mm mortar?
• Name two key outputs produced during MDMP.
• Which term describes the ability to adapt to enemy actions?
• A Mission Essential Task (MET) is defined as:
• In fire support terms, what does 'Occupy' mean?
• What are the five sections of a standard OPORD?
• What is the approximate cyclic rate of fire for the M249?
• Which step follows Initiate Movement in the Troop Leading Procedures?
• What is the primary purpose of the Military Decision Making Process (MDMP)?
• The M240 has a maximum range of approximately how many meters?
• What is suppressive fire?
• Which Offensive Characteristic is best described as bold, aggressive execution to maintain initiative?
• Which staff would you consult for information security and intelligence?
• Attack (Patrol) is defined as:
• What is the purpose of a mission statement in an OPORD?
• Which option NOT describes a movement formation?
• GOTWA stands for which set of actions?
• If you engage a point target at 520 meters with an M4, are you within the weapon's point-target effective range?
• Which statement about surface-to-surface fires is true?
• Security aims to prevent what?
• OPSEC stands for what?
• Which staff is associated with logistics and supply?
• Which weapon has a max range of approximately 3,600 meters?
• Which term describes planning and fortifying positions before engagement?
• Who handles sustainment, logistics, and supply (S4)?
• What is a patrol base used for?
• Which description correctly defines a raid (Combat Patrol)?
• Which mortar has the longest maximum range according to the data?
• Traveling movement is defined as which description?
• What are Obstacles in terrain analysis?
• Which Offensive Characteristic involves rapidly following a successful attack to disorganize the enemy?
• Which statement describes the relationship between M249 rapid and sustained rate of fire?
• What is the purpose of ROE (Rules of Engagement)?
• In an OPORD, which section provides the overall context, constraints, and enemy forces at a high level?
• Which of the following is NOT a step in the 8-Step Training Model?
• Which Offensive Characteristic is defined as striking the enemy at an unexpected time/place/manner?
• Which term denotes direct physical influence over an area or unit?
• What is the M4 effective range for a point-target?
• Which operation is described as a broad scouting operation to gather information while maintaining presence?
• Which term describes chasing and destroying a withdrawing enemy?
• Define declination in map reading.
• Which process encompasses planning and issuing orders in infantry operations?
• Which statement best describes reconnaissance?
• Targeting categories are defined as which of the following?
• Name a common defensive formation for small units.
• Which term is typically the smallest maneuver unit in the infantry organization?
• Which Offensive Characteristic is defined as exploiting a successful attack to disorganize the enemy?
• What does grid north refer to on a map?
• Which of the following is part of the 8-Step Training Model?
• Which Offensive Characteristic is defined as the speed of operations to overwhelm enemy decision-making?
• What is the effect of the obstacle action 'Fix'?
• What is the significance of 'Key Terrain'?
• Which term refers to a major terrain feature?
• Which term describes a direct attack against the enemy front?
• Which term represents a friendly infantry unit typically deployed by helicopters for assault missions?
• What does a 6-digit grid coordinate specify on a standard map?
• Which Offensive Characteristic forces the enemy to abandon a position by threatening the rear?
• What is the command post process of planning and issuing orders in infantry operations commonly called?
• Who are Primary Trainers?
• A phase line is best described as which of the following?
• Contour lines close together indicate what?
• Movement to Contact is the term for developing the situation and gaining contact with the enemy in what context?
• What is the M4 effective range for an area-target?
• What does OAKOC stand for?
• What is the M240 effective range at the point bipod?
• An ambush is best described as:
• What does 'fire discipline' mean?
• Deliberate targeting is best described as which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT a Fire Support Coordination Measure listed in the material?
• Which of the following correctly lists the format of a mission statement?
• The obstacle effect 'Turn' accomplishes which outcome?
• Which term describes an enemy infantry unit smaller than a company?
• What is the maximum range of the M249?
• Which term denotes a combat element focused on defeating enemy armored vehicles?
• What is the difference between CASEVAC and MEDEVAC?
• Map Colors (Green) indicate which features?
• Which tactic involves attacking the enemy flank(s)?
• What is the primary role of S-2 during operations?
• What does brown map color indicate?
• On a map with a scale of 1:50,000, a measured distance of 3 cm on the map equals how many meters on the ground?
• Name the five steps of basic risk management in order.
• Define bounding overwatch.
• Which term refers to a unit typically composed of two or more squads and led by a lieutenant?
• Which statement describes the chain of command?
• Engagement Area Development refers to which concept?
• Which color indicates vegetation on maps?
• Which step involves implementing controls in risk management?
• Grid north is defined as the direction indicated by what?
• Priority targets are defined as which of the following?
• Which color indicates water on maps?
• In an OPORD, which section describes the tasks to subordinate units and the sequence of actions?
• What does PCC stand for and what is its purpose?
• In combat, the principles of proportionality and distinction require force to be applied in what manner?
• How many fire teams are in a rifle squad?
• Which term describes terrain features whose control provides a decisive advantage in an operation?
• Which statement about major terrain features is true?
• What is the M240 cyclic rate of fire range in rounds per minute?
• An Avenue of Approach is best described as?
• Supplemental Contour Line
• Who handles personnel, administration, and manpower at the company level (S1)?
• Which statement best describes a back azimuth?
• Observation and Fields of Fire refer to what in terrain analysis?
• What is the approximate range of a 120mm mortar?
• What is the M249 effective range for an area-target?
• Which term denotes a platoon focused on anti-armor capabilities?
• What is the M249 rate of fire (sustained)?
• Which Offensive Characteristic is described as bold, aggressive execution to maintain initiative?
• What is the first step in the Troop Leading Procedures?
• Which term describes an enemy infantry unit at the battalion level?
• Dynamic targeting is used in operations for what reason?
• Which factors are analyzed under METT-TC during mission analysis?
• Who handles intelligence, security, and information at the battalion/squad level (S2)?
• What is the difference in meters between the M4's point-target and area-target effective ranges?
• What is the difference between cover and concealment?
• SOSRA stands for which sequence?
• What is the M240 rapid rate of fire in rounds per minute?
• What is a fire plan?
• What does 'Key terrain' mean in terrain analysis?
• Which tactic is a direct attack against the enemy front?
• In map reading, what is the purpose of a compass resection?
• Contour lines far apart indicate which type of slope?
• Which term describes a planned area designated to destroy an enemy using coordinated fires and obstacles?
• How many steps are in the Troop Leading Procedures?
• In fire support terms, what does 'Isolate' mean?
• In fire support terms, what does 'Support by Fire' mean?
• What is the difference between reconnaissance and security patrols?
• What is the maximum range of the M4?
• Which term represents a single infantry squad?
• How does a raid differ from reconnaissance-in-force?
• Which staff section is primarily responsible for collecting, assessing, and disseminating intelligence and security information?
• How is a rifle squad typically structured?
• What is an ambush?
• Which term describes moving through gaps to attack from unexpected positions?
• Which of the following is NOT a standard OPORD section?
• Bounding Overwatch is used when which condition exists?
• What is the primary role of S-3 during operations?
• Which term means to stop, hold, or surround the enemy?
• Which item is a continuous patrol base priority of work?
• What is an Avenue of Approach?
• Which mortar has the shortest minimum range according to the data?
• Which statement best describes the Principles of Training?
• What is the Limit of Advance in operations?
• Map Colors (Black) indicate which features?
• Which rate-of-fire category for the M240 is approximately 200 rounds per minute?
• What is the primary role of S-4 during operations?
• Which of the following is a movement formation?
• Bounding Overwatch is described as which?
• Which term is a platoon specialized for air assault operations?
• What is the M240 sustained rate of fire in rounds per minute?
• Which statement best describes dynamic targeting?
• In combat, the principles of proportionality and distinction require what?
• What is the final step in the Troop Leading Procedures?
• Which Offensive Characteristic is defined as massing combat power at the decisive point?
• What is the minimum range of the 120mm mortar?
• What is the purpose of rehearsals in pre-mission planning?
• What is a common method to determine distance on a map?
• Which of the following is a minor terrain feature?
• What is the approximate firing range of an 81mm mortar?
• In casualty care, which component does the MARCH sequence prioritize first?
• Unanticipated targets refer to which kind of target?
• Deliberate targeting is characterized by which of the following actions?
• Preparation is defined as planning and fortifying positions before engagement.
• Defensive Characteristics include which elements?
• Which tactic moves through gaps to strike at unexpected positions?
• Which concept involves concentrating fires at a decisive point?
• Which term denotes a checkpoint used to control movement and verify personnel?
• In fire support terms, what does 'Secure' mean?
• In a rifle squad, who typically leads a fire team?
• Which item is a patrol base priority of work related to meals and rest?
• Index Contour Line is every 5th line, thicker, labeled elevation.
• Which term describes targets whose engagement is prioritized based on time or importance?
• What describes a Phase Line in military operations?
• Penetration is defined as breaking through the enemy front and disrupt rear.
• Which term denotes the smallest unit within an infantry organization typically consisting of several soldiers?
• What is the M240 effective range at the area bipod?
• Who typically leads a platoon in infantry operations?
• Which of the following is NOT a step in the 8-Step Training Model?
• What information do contour lines convey on a map?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of indirect fire?
• Which rate-of-fire category for the M240 is approximately 100 rounds per minute?
• The obstacle effect 'Block' results in which outcome?
• Types of indirect fire include which of the following?
• Common contour interval values on maps are typically which of the following?
• What is the meaning of the chain of command?
• Which statement best describes 'Avenues of approach' in terrain analysis?
• In fire support terms, what does 'Disrupt' mean?